Does Spinoza solve the mind–body problem or just rename it?
I came to this site for philosophy of mind and stayed for Spinoza, so I owe the question.
Spinoza's move, as I understand it: there is one substance, with infinitely many attributes, of which we know two, thought and extension. A mind and its body are the same thing expressed under two attributes. So there is no interaction problem, because there are not two things to interact. The order and connection of ideas is the same as the order and connection of things (Ethics II, proposition 7), and neither attribute causally acts on the other.
This seems like a clean answer to Elisabeth's question. But I keep worrying it is a relabelling. The puzzle was: why is this physical process accompanied by experience? Spinoza's answer seems to be: because everything physical is also, under another attribute, mental. That makes the mind everywhere, which sounds like panpsychism with better manners.
Anne Conway is the other figure I keep thinking about. She also refuses the two-substance picture, but goes the other way: spirit and body differ only in degree within one living created substance. That seems more like a continuum than a parallelism.
So: is dual-aspect monism a genuine solution, or does it leave the hard part exactly where it was? And does Conway's continuum do better or worse?