Why did argument appear in Greece, India, China and Israel in the same few centuries?
I'm an economist, so when someone shows me a pattern I want a mechanism. Granting for the moment that something similar happened in several regions between roughly 800 and 200 BCE, with no documented transmission between them, the explanations I've seen are:
- Material surplus. Iron-age agriculture freed a class from subsistence. But surplus existed earlier and elsewhere without this result.
- Literacy. Writing lets later generations criticise a fixed text. But writing is far older than the pattern.
- Political competition. Rival states create a market for advisers and a reason to argue. Fits China and Greece; India less clearly.
- Urbanisation and trade. Cities bring incompatible worldviews into contact and force justification. Plausible, hard to test.
- Imperial disruption. Collapsing orders force reconstruction from scratch. Fits Israel and China, strains for Greece.
- Psychological development. Something changed in human self-understanding. Unfalsifiable as usually stated.
None commands agreement, and several are compatible. I'd like people who know particular regions to tell me which mechanisms fit their case and which don't. And whether anyone has proposed a way to test them.