Thesis The sea battle argument is a scope mistake, and Aristotle half saw it
Where it stands
Every year I teach chapter 9 of De Interpretatione to seventeen-year-olds, and every year somebody leaves the room a fatalist. So here is the case I make to them, and I would like it attacked by people who know more logic than my students.
The argument: if "there will be a sea battle tomorrow" is already true today, the battle is settled and nothing anyone does can prevent it. If it is false today, the battle is ruled out. Either way the future is fixed by present truth, and deliberation is theatre.
My thesis is that the argument trades on moving "necessarily". This is true:
Necessarily, either there will be a battle or there will not.
This does not follow from it:
Either necessarily there will be a battle, or necessarily there will not.
The first puts necessity over the whole disjunction; the second distributes it onto each half. Once you write the two out, the fatalist's step is plainly invalid. Aristotle comes close to saying exactly this near the end of the chapter, where he says it is necessary that there will or will not be a battle, but not necessary that there will be one, nor that there will not.
Whether he also denied that "there will be a battle tomorrow" has a truth value today is a separate question, and readers have argued about it for a very long time. I am not taking a side on that here. My claim is narrower: once the scope is fixed, fatalism has lost its logical support, and it needs some other premise to survive.
Where does this go wrong?