Is the logician’s ‘if’ what a contract means by ‘if’?
In contract translation, conditionals are where most of my difficulties live.
Arabic has several words that English renders as "if". Classical grammar distinguishes in, for an open possibility; idhā, for something expected to happen; and law, for the counterfactual, what would have been. Hebrew has its own distinctions, with im for the open case and lu for the unreal one. None of these is the logician's truth-functional "if", which only cares whether the parts are true or false.
And contracts add another problem. A clause says: "If the goods are delivered by 1 June, the buyer will pay the full price." Everyone reads it as also meaning that if the goods are not delivered by then, the buyer need not pay the full price. But logically, "if P then Q" says nothing at all about what happens when P is false. The parties hear "if and only if". The text says "if".
So I'd like several answers. Is the logician's conditional the right analysis of "if" in law and contracts, or should we say that ordinary "if" often means "if and only if"? And what do traditions with long legal drafting histories have to say?