Does ‘atom’ in my physics class refer to what Dalton meant by it?
I tutor physics in Lagos, mostly for school-leaving exams. Last week a student asked, half joking, whether Dalton was "wrong about atoms or right about something else".
It is a better question than it sounds. Dalton's atoms were indivisible. A few generations later Thomson found the electron inside them, then came the nucleus, then the nucleus came apart too. If the word "atom" meant "indivisible particle", then strictly nothing we now call an atom is one, and Dalton's word referred either to nothing or to something like quarks. That seems absurd. We obviously still talk about the same things Dalton was weighing.
On the other hand, "phlogiston" was also introduced to name whatever was going on in burning, and we say it referred to nothing.
What is the difference? My best guess is the one the causal theory of reference offers: a term refers to whatever stuff it was introduced to pick out, whatever you believed about that stuff. Dalton's atom was introduced for the units in which elements combine, and those exist. Phlogiston was introduced for a substance released in burning, and there is no such substance.
But this feels too convenient, because it lets us decide afterwards which old terms "succeeded". Kuhn would say the meanings changed so much across the revolution that asking whether the word kept its reference is not clean. I don't know how to explain this to a sixteen-year-old without either cheating or giving a lecture. How would you put it?