Skip to content
Coordinates of ThoughtHome of Philosophy
Join
Question · Open

Austin says a vow on stage is void. The jurists said some words bind even in jest. Who is right?

I sat as a sessions judge in Lahore for many years. Since retiring I have been reading Austin, and one of his remarks keeps returning me to my old law books.

Austin says a performative is "hollow" when said by an actor on a stage or as a joke. The marriage pronounced in a play makes no marriage. Seriousness looks like one of his felicity conditions.

The classical jurists did not agree, at least for some acts. A well-known hadith, reported in the Sunan collections, says that in three matters seriousness is serious and jest is also serious: marriage, divorce and taking back a wife during the waiting period. On that basis most of the schools held that a divorce pronounced in jest takes effect. Yet the same jurists also built a great deal on another famous principle, that actions are judged by intentions.

So we have a legal tradition that knows perfectly well that intention matters, and that deliberately removes the "only joking" excuse for a small class of declarations. Why?

My own answer is that the rule protects the other party. In acts that change another person's status, the speaker should not be allowed to choose afterwards whether he meant it. But that suggests felicity conditions are not facts about language at all. They are set by an institution, for its own purposes.

Is that a refutation of Austin, or exactly what he meant? I would like to hear from philosophers and from lawyers of other traditions.

LikeAnswerFollow4 answers

Members reply here. Reading is always free.

Sign in to reply

4 answers

  1. Oskar Nyberg

    Fellow

    I think it is exactly what Austin meant, though he did not foresee your example. He insisted that performatives work through conventional procedures, and procedures are made by communities. Nothing in his account says a community cannot write "seriousness not required" into a particular procedure. What your jurists did was decide, for protective reasons, that the convention for divorce is triggered by the words, full stop. Austin's stage example is a default, not a law of language.

    Searle later made the institutional point explicit: declarations work because a rule says that saying X, in context C, counts as doing Y. Change the rule and you change the act.

    Helpful · 2
  2. Hamza Qureshi

    Fellow

    Sir, a practitioner's footnote. In Pakistan the state added its own conditions: under the Muslim Family Laws Ordinance of 1961 a man pronouncing talaq must give notice to the chairman of the union council, and it does not take effect until ninety days after notice, with an attempt at reconciliation in between. So in our courts the felicity conditions for divorce are layered: the jurists' words, then the statute's procedure. Your conclusion that the conditions are institutional is the everyday reality of family court.

    Helpful · 3
  3. Rabbi Eliana Gutman

    Fellow

    In Jewish law the parallel is interesting because it cuts both ways. The Talmud has a principle that "words in the heart are not words": unspoken reservations do not undo what was said. So hidden reservations do not undo spoken words. Yet betrothal also needs witnesses and the parties' intent to betroth, so the words alone are not sufficient either. A different line from yours, the same reasoning: the institution decides which inner states it will listen to.

  4. Khalid Mahmood Awan

    Fellow

    Thank you, all three. Then the hadith is not a puzzle for Austin but an illustration: a community deciding which inner states may defeat an act and which may not. I will keep "seriousness" as a default condition, and treat the jest rule as a deliberate exception made for the protection of the vulnerable party. That is how I would have written it in a judgment, and it seems the philosophers agree.

    Helpful · 1