At my hospital “no evidence of harm” keeps being heard as “evidence of no harm”. When is absence of evidence evidence?
Its coordinates: 6.13 Philosophy of Medicine
In meetings at our hospital, I hear the same move again and again. Someone asks whether a new procedure, a cheaper supplier's product, or a shortcut in cleaning has any risks. Someone else answers: "There's no evidence of harm." And the meeting moves on as if that were a reassurance.
I am an administrator, not a doctor, but I have learned the old saying that absence of evidence is not evidence of absence. The textbooks call the opposite move the appeal to ignorance: something is true because it hasn't been proven false.
But I also notice that the saying can't be entirely right. If we have used a product on ten thousand patients and watched carefully, and nobody was harmed, surely the absence of harm is evidence of safety. And if nobody has looked at all, the same words mean almost nothing.
So my questions:
- When does "no evidence of harm" become real evidence that there is no harm?
- Is there a simple way to say this to a committee that doesn't sound like an attack on whoever said it?
In kalam I have read arguments that the absence of proof for something is grounds for denying it. I suspect it is the same question in a turban.