Did Adam Smith change his mind between The Theory of Moral Sentiments and The Wealth of Nations?
Adam Smith is buried in the Canongate Kirkyard, and since retiring I've been reading him properly for the first time.
The Theory of Moral Sentiments (1759) opens by saying that however selfish we may suppose a man to be, there are principles in his nature that interest him in the fortunes of others and make their happiness necessary to him, though he gets nothing from it but the pleasure of seeing it. The whole book is built on sympathy and on the imagined "impartial spectator" through whose eyes we judge ourselves.
The Wealth of Nations (1776) contains the line everyone knows: it is not from the benevolence of the butcher, the brewer or the baker that we expect our dinner, but from their regard to their own interest.
Some German scholars in the nineteenth century thought these two books contradicted each other, and that Smith had swung from sympathy to self-interest. They called it das Adam Smith Problem.
As far as I can see that can't be right, because Smith kept revising Moral Sentiments until the sixth edition of 1790, the year he died, long after Wealth of Nations. But I'd like to understand how the two fit. Is self-interest at the market stall simply one of the things the impartial spectator approves of, within limits? From my years in a GP surgery, I found that both books described the patients rather well.