Norman the clairvoyant is reliably right, yet most people say he doesn’t know. Why?
We did the Norman case in my epistemology tutorial this week and I came out more confused than I went in.
The setup, as I understood it: Norman has a clairvoyant faculty that is completely reliable. He has no idea he has it, no evidence for it, and no reason to think clairvoyance is even possible. One day he finds himself believing the President is in New York. The belief is true, and it came from the reliable faculty.
The tutor asked for a show of hands on whether Norman knows. Almost everyone said no. I said yes, mostly out of contrarianism, and then could not defend it.
Here is what bugs me. If what matters is getting things right reliably, Norman is doing great. A weather forecasting model that is right 95% of the time is something we trust, even if nobody can say exactly why a given forecast came out the way it did. So why is the "no" intuition supposed to be so strong?
I think the answer has something to do with the difference between internalism and externalism, but the readings explained the terms in a way that made them sound like the same thing with different emphasis. Could someone give me the clean version: what each side says, why Norman is supposed to be a problem for one of them, and whether there is a way of splitting the difference?